Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
12.06.2025 02:05
There's no rule.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Do you know of a female masseuse that does door-to-door service in Bangalore?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.